Sample Questions

Question 1:

Choose the correct verb to fill the gap.

By the end of the year, she _______ with a degree in business.

1. already graduates
2. already graduated
3. will have already graduated
4. has already graduated

Question 2:

Choose the synonym for the following word Hallowed

1. Sacred
2. Old
3. Inactive
4. Effective

Question 3:

As _______ cuts it as well as he does, I always have my hair cut at Johnson’s.

1. anyone
2. someone else’s
3. no one else
4. everyone

Question 4:

Mohit _______ his century before it is the end of the match.

1. will score
2. will have scored
3. has scored
4. scores

Question 5:

Which word is a adverb in this sentence?

There are no interesting programmes tonight.

1. interesting
2. programmes
3. there
4. tonight

Question 1:

In a survey, it was found that 65% of the people would watch news on TV, 40% read in newspaper, 25% read newspaper and watched TV. What percentage of people neither watched TV nor read newspaper?

1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 20%

Question 2:

If x stands for 'addition', ÷ stands for 'subtraction', + stands for 'multiplication' and - stands for 'division', then 20 × 8 ÷ 8 - 4 + 2 = ?

1. 80
2. 25
3. 24
4. 5

Question 3:

If in a code language, COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as LZQFHM, how will MOULDING be written in that code?

1. CHMFINTK
2. LNKTCHMF
3. LNTKCHMF
4. NITKHCMF

Question 4:

Who among T, R and S is (are) to the East of P?

I. R, who is to the West of P, is not as near to S as P, S is in the farthest East.

II. P is not as far away from S and T

1. If statement (i) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
2. If statement (ii) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked
3. If EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the questions asked.
4. If BOTH statements (i) and (ii) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 5:

Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. 1. Family 2. Community 3.Member 4.Locality 5. Country

1. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
3. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
4. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Question 1:

What is the name of the latest Android OS?

1. KitKat
2. Lollipop
3. Marshmallow
4. Nougat

Question 2:

The language spoken by the people of Pakistan is?

1. Hindi
2. Palauan
3. Sindhi
4. Nauruan

Question 3:

Punjab is famous for?

1. Nylon textile
2. Silk textile
3. Woolen textile
4. Cotton textile

Question 4:

The book “Letters from a Father to His Daughter” was written by

1. Rajaji
2. Radhakrishnan
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 5:

When is the Earth Day celebrated?

1. 1st January
2. 30th April
3. 22nd April
4. None of these

Question 1:

A point ’P’ is placed at a distance of 12 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 17 cm. How many integer length chords of this circle can pass through P?

1. 19
2. 24
3. 32
4. 360

Question 2:

How many faces are there for a Pentagonal prism?

1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 4

Question 3:

Which brand uses the tag line “Just do it”

1. KFC
2. NIKE
3. Jaguar
4. Adidas

Question 4:

The organized and orderly approach to solving problems is known as the:

1. Engineering process
2. Design process
3. Aesthetic process
4. Functional process

Question 5:

Magazines, advertisements, and product packaging all have a common use. What term best describes the category they all fall into?

1. Creativity
2. Technology
3. Artistic
4. Graphic Design

Question 1:

There are 30 people in a party. If everyone is to shake hands with one another, how many handshakes are possible?

1. 180
2. 256
3. 386
4. 435

Question 2:

Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence :Letter, Sentence, Word, Phrase

1. 1, 2, 4, 3
2. 2, 1, 3, 4
3. 2, 4, 1, 3
4. 1, 3, 4, 2

Question 3:

Contributions of human relations movement is/are

1. Great depression
2. Labour movement
3. Hawthorne studies
4. All of these

Question 4:

According to service quality model, ability to provide service accurately and dependably is classified as:

1. Empathy
2. Reliability
3. Responsiveness
4. Assurance

Question 5:

Which of the following statements best describes the level of risk taking, innovation, imagination, and initiative by members of the group:

1. harbor improvements and international airport
2. harbor improvements and school music program
3. hurricane preparedness and school music program
4. harbor improvements and hurricane preparedness

Question 1:

Which of the following Kostha of a patient needs lower dose?

1. Krur kostha
2. Madhyam kostha
3. Mridu kostha
4. No variation in dose

Question 2:

Which of the following is a Communicable Disease?

1. Amoebiasis
2. Cancers
3. Hypertension
4. None of the above

Question 3:

Which of the following is not the part of Triphala?

1. Harada
2. Baheda
3. Amla
4. Gokshur

Question 4:

Which of the following is the member of Brihad Panchmool?

1. Prishnaparni
2. Kantkari
3. Gambhari
4. Gokshur

Question 5:

Nidaan, Poorvarupa, Rupa, Upshaya and Samprapti are collectively referred to as?

1. Bhihad panchaka
2. Laghu panchaka
3. Kriyakaal
4. Nidaan panchaka

Question 1:

Drugs and Magic remedies (Objectionable Advertisement) Act was constituted in which year?

1. 1950
2. 1955
3. 1947
4. 1970

Question 2:

Prevention of cruelty to Animals Act was constituted in which year?

1. 1960
2. 1970
3. 1980
4. 1965

Question 3:

The carbohydrate reserved in human body is:

1. Starch
2. Glycogen
3. Glucose
4. Inulin

Question 4:

Which drug is Gametocidal in nature?

1. Primaquine
2. Amodoquine
3. Pyrimethamine
4. Chloroquine

Question 5:

An antagonist is a substance that:

1. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
2. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
3. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
4. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

Question 1:

The lowest concentration of the antimicrobial agent required to produce a sterile culture is known as _______

1. Maximum bactericidal concentration
2. Minimum bactericidal concentration
3. Average bactericidal concentration
4. Intermediate bactericidal concentration

Question 2:

The antigens for ABO and Rh blood groups are present on _______

1. Plasma
2. White blood cell
3. Red blood cell
4. Platelets

Question 3:

Alkaline phosphatase enzyme is a biomarker of ?

1. Kidney
2. Heart
3. Lungs
4. Liver

Question 4:

Which culture media is used for antibiotic-sensitivity test ?

1. Blood agar
2. Thayer-Martin Medium
3. Mueller-Hinton Agar
4. Whey agar

Question 5:

If the blood group of an individual is a then the antibody present is _______

1. Anti B antibodies
2. Anti A antibodies
3. Anti O antibodies
4. Anti OA antibodies

Question 1:

A uniform beam of length 4 m is supported at its ends. A load of 200 N acts at its center. The reactions at supports will be:

1. 50 N each
2. 100 N each
3. 200 N each
4. 400 N each

Question 2:

The main purpose of annealing heat treatment is to:

1. Increase hardness
2. Induce internal stresses
3. Refine grain structure and improve ductility
4. Increase brittleness

Question 3:

In casting, the pattern is made slightly larger than the final casting to allow for:

1. Shrinkage of metal during solidification
2. Machining allowance only
3. Core print fitting
4. Molding box size

Question 4:

Which instrument gives the least count of 0.01 mm?

1. Vernier caliper
2. Micrometer screw gauge
3. Steel rule
4. Slip gauge

Question 4:

According to Bernoulli’s theorem, the sum of pressure head, velocity head, and potential head is:

1. Constant along a streamline
2. Zero everywhere
3. Minimum at throat
4. Dependent on density

Question 1:

The main constituent of cement responsible for early strength is:

1. Tricalcium silicate (C₃S)
2. Dicalcium silicate (C₂S)
3. Tricalcium aluminate (C₃A)
4. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite (C₄AF)

Question 2:

According to the law of parallelogram of forces, the resultant of two forces is represented by:

1. The difference between the two forces
2. The diagonal of the parallelogram constructed on the two forces as sides
3. The bisector of the angle between the forces
4. The line perpendicular to both forces

Question 3:

Which of the following instruments is used for levelling in surveying?

1. Theodolite
2. Dumpy level
3. Compass
4. Plane table

Question 4:

In building drawings, the top view of a structure is called:

1. Elevation
2. Section
3. Plan
4. Layout

Question 5:

The most suitable foundation for black cotton soil is:

1. Raft foundation
2. Isolated footing
3. Grillage foundation
4. Under-reamed pile foundation

Question 1:

What is the primary goal of an Operating System?

1. To make system software run faster
2. To make the system convenient for users and efficient for resource use
3. To perform mathematical calculations
4. To connect computers to the internet

Question 2:

Which of the following can occur due to poor CPU scheduling?

1. Deadlock
2. Fragmentation
3. Starvation
4. Compilation error

Question 3:

In contiguous memory allocation, each process is allocated:

1. A single continuous block of memory
2. Multiple scattered memory blocks
3. Memory in secondary storage
4. Virtual memory space only

Question 4:

In paging, the logical memory is divided into:

1. Frames
2. Blocks
3. Pages
4. Segments

Question 5:

What is meant by mutual exclusion in the context of deadlocks?

1. Multiple processes can use a resource simultaneously
2. Only one process can use a resource at a time
3. Resources are shared among all processes
4. Processes avoid each other during execution

Question 1:

In an intrinsic semiconductor at thermal equilibrium, the concentration of electrons in the conduction band is equal to:

1. Concentration of holes in the valence band
2. Concentration of donor atoms
3. Concentration of acceptor atoms
4. Zero

Question 2:

Which filter circuit provides the lowest ripple voltage in a rectifier output?

1. Shunt capacitor filter
2. Series inductor filter
3. LC π-filter
4. RC filter

Question 3:

In which BJT configuration is the voltage gain approximately unity but current gain is high?

1. Common Emitter (CE)
2. Common Base (CB)
3. Common Collector (CC)
4. None of the above

Question 4:

The primary purpose of emitter bypass capacitor in a CE amplifier is to:

1. Increase the AC voltage gain by bypassing Re
2. Stabilize the Q-point against temperature variations
3. Reduce the input impedance
4. Block DC component from the output

Question 5:

In an n-channel enhancement MOSFET, the channel is induced when:

1. Vgs < Vth
2. Vgs > Vth
3. Vds > Vgs
4. Vgs = 0

Question 1:

The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm of generators used in Thermal, Nuclear

and Hydro-power plants would respectively be

1. 3000, 300 and 1500
2. 3000, 3000 and 300
3. 1500, 1500 and 3000
4. 1000, 900 and 750.

Question 2:

A short transmission line has a sending-end voltage of 11 kV and a receiving-end voltage of 10.5 kV (both line-to-line).

The voltage regulation is:

1. 4.76 %
2. 5.26 %
3. 6.12 %
4. 7.00 %

Question 3:

A 3-phase 50 Hz medium line delivers 20 MW at 0.8 p.f. lag, 66 kV.

Series resistance per phase = 5 Ω, reactance per phase = 25 Ω. Find transmission efficiency.

1. 92.5%
2. 94.5%
3. 95.5%
4. 96.5%

Question 4:

If 3 capacitances C1=10 F , C2=10 F and C3=10 F are connected in series what is the equivalent capacitance?

1. 30 F
2. 3.33 F
3. 6.66 F
4. 0.3 F

Question 5:

The real and reactive power of the circuit is 5 W and 5 Vars. What is apparent power?

1. 7.07 VA
2. 5 VA
3. 25 VA
4. 10 VA

Question 1:

Which of the following is considered the father of modern biotechnology?

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Karl Ereky
3. Robert Koch
4. Gregor Mendel

Question 2:

Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondria
3. Ribosome
4. Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 3:

Which of the following processes describes the synthesis of mRNA from DNA?

1. Translation
2. Transcription
3. Replication
4. Mutation

Question 4:

Which microorganism is commonly used in the production of ethanol?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Escherichia coli
4. Streptococcus

Question 5:

The enzyme used to join DNA fragments is:

1. DNA polymerase
2. Restriction enzyme
3. Ligase
4. Helicase

Question 1:

Starch Adulteration in milk or milk products is detected using which test.

1. Fehling’s test
2. Benedict’s test
3. Iodine test
4. Saccharin test

Question 2:

All the below mentioned heat transfer requires medium, except

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Diffusion
4. Radiation

Question 3:

The principle of conservation of Energy is given by:

1. Planks equation
2. Bernoulli’s theorem
3. Arrhenius theory
4. Pythagoras theorem

Question 4:

Which of the following test used to determine the efficiency of pasteurization of milk

1. Phosphatase test
2. Amylase test
3. Lipase test
4. hydrogenase test

Question 5:

The presence of coliform bacteria in food indicates

1. Fermentation of Food
2. Export quality product
3. HACCP certified product
4. Fecal Contamination

Question 1:

During human gait, the gluteus medius prevents pelvic drop on the opposite side by generating which type of muscle contraction in the stance phase of walking?

1. Concentric contraction of the ipsilateral gluteus medius
2. Eccentric contraction of the contralateral gluteus medius
3. Isometric contraction of the ipsilateral gluteus medius
4. Concentric contraction of the contralateral gluteus medius

Question 2:

When applying interferential therapy (IFT) to stimulate deep tissues, the therapeutic advantage over low-frequency current primarily results from:

1. Lower tissue impedance allowing deeper penetration
2. Higher surface stimulation improving comfort
3. Shorter pulse duration reducing muscle fatigue
4. Increased depolarization threshold in superficial tissues

Question 3:

In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following exercise interventions best facilitates improvement in ventilatory efficiency and reduces dyspnea?

1. High-resistance inspiratory training
2. Diaphragmatic and pursed-lip breathing
3. Forced expiratory exercises
4. Upper-limb resistance training with breath-holding

Question 4:

During rehabilitation of a post-stroke patient, facilitation of a weak biceps muscle using neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) is most effective when:

1. Low-frequency current is used with short pulse width
2. Electrodes are placed over the antagonist muscle
3. The patient attempts voluntary contraction during stimulation
4. The current intensity is set below motor threshold

Question 5:

Under the ICF framework, a patient with a spinal cord injury who uses a wheelchair for mobility but is able to work independently would be classified as having:

1. Severe impairment with total disability
2. Moderate activity limitation but no participation restriction
3. Activity limitation and participation restriction
4. Impairment only without functional limitation